{For how knowest thou?} (	i gar oidas;). But what does
Paul mean? Is he giving an argument _against_ the believer
accepting divorce or _in favour_ of doing so? The syntax allows
either interpretation with ei (if) after oidas. Is the idea
in ei (if) _hope_ of saving the other or _fear_ of not saving
and hence peril in continuing the slavery of such a bondage? The
latter idea probably suits the context best and is adopted by
most commentators. And yet one hesitates to interpret Paul as
_advocating_ divorce unless strongly insisted on by the
unbeliever. There is no problem at all unless the unbeliever
makes it. If it is a hopeless case, acquiescence is the only wise
solution. But surely the believer ought to be sure that there is
no hope before he agrees to break the bond. Paul raises the
problem of the wife first as in verse  10 .